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This is a complete straw man. Assange wasn't calling for the abolition of government, nor did he say they're the only ones who do bad things.

Further, Hobbes' state of nature has zero grounding in empirical fact. Which historical state of nature does it refer to?



> Which historical state of nature does it refer to?

Hobbes' state of nature is probably an ahistorical argument. That all men used to live under a state of nature is not necessary to Hobbes' argument. It is a thought experiment, showing the consequences of there not being a state, and allowing him to infer the rights of the people within the state. In terms of history, Hobbes would have had in mind cases contemporary to him when state authority collapsed and violent chaos took hold -- the English Civil War etc.

He is not arguing from history, and to dismiss his argument on that ground alone might risk disengaging from what Hobbes' was trying to get at.




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